PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

Unit 1 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. What is the value of using an ABAB design?

a. It permits the study of the effects of multiple forms of treatment on a single subject. b. Subjects can be selected randomly. c. The effects of a single form of treatment are studied twice in the same subject. d. Generalizability is ensured.

2. What did Seligman find by studying dogs exposed to uncontrollable shock?

a. Seligman demonstrated that dogs can get depressed. b. Seligman found that the dogs became aggressive. c. Seligman found that uncontrollable shock led the dogs to behave much like depressed humans. d. Seligman found that the exposure to the shock altered the level of brain chemicals known to be involved in depression.

3. What term refers to the number of new cases of a disorder that occur over a given time period?

a. point prevalence b. one-year prevalence c. incidence d. valence

4. People in the Middle Ages:

a. believed that mentally ill people were witches b. believed that witches were mentally ill c. believed that mentally ill witches should be treated differently than other types of witches d. believed that most witches and mentally ill people were possessed by demons, but in different ways

5. Why is it particularly useful to study identical twins who were raised in different environments?

a. Differences in brain function can easily be identified. b. Concordance rates tend to be higher. c. It is possible that the genetics of twins who have been separated have changed in ways to explain any differences found. d. It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to their being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins.



Unit 1 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

6. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. He goes for treatment, where he is gradually exposed to dogs, until he can be in the same room with a dog without feeling any fear. Three weeks later, while walking in his neighborhood, Jose hears a dog barking viciously. For a few weeks after this, his fear returns. This shows:

a. the treatment had no effect b. extinction c. stimulus-stimulus expectancy d. spontaneous recovery

7. Neural plasticity is:

a. the process by which neurotransmitters are broken down in the brain b. the flexibility of the brain—existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made c. strong evidence of brain damage, leading to the development of a mental disorder d. the best indicator of temperament and its effect on the personality development of a child

8. What is important to remember about the apparent high lifetime rate of mental disorders?

a. Many people were probably misdiagnosed. b. So many people have disorders that this has become a major health issue. c. Many people with disorders are not seriously affected by them or may have them for only a short time. d. A large majority of people with disorders seek treatment, so the problem is not as bad as it seems.

9. Freud’s view of mental disorders was that they were a result of:

a. unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego b. genetic abnormalities that influence people’s ability to cope with their environment c. problematic tendencies we develop while dealing with our early interpersonal environments d. learned maladaptive behaviors that were rewarded with attention

10. What type of prevalence estimate tends to be lowest?

a. point prevalence b. one-year prevalence c. lifetime prevalence d. virtual prevalence



Unit 1 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

11. Which of the following is included in the DSM-5?

a. a discussion of the various causes of mental disorders b. a means of identifying different mental disorders c. a description of all conditions for mental illness d. a description of all of the possible treatments for each disorder

12. Intelligence and personality tests can best be described as:

a. indirect means of assessing psychological characteristics b. unstructured means of assessing behavior c. direct means of assessing behavior d. observational means of assessing behavior

13. Which of the following is NOT a common method for studying genetic influences?

a. the study of specific gene defects b. twin studies c. adoption studies d. family history (pedigree) studies

14. Which of the following would be used to reveal a dysrhythmia in brain activity?

a. CAT scan b. EEG c. MRI d. PET scan

15. Johann Weyer, in the early 1500s:

a. was a popularly accepted writer who argued that mental illness was due to demon possession b. was a popularly accepted writer who argued that mental illness was due to imbalances in the four humors c. wrote a book that was condemned by many, arguing that many witches were actually mentally ill d. wrote a book that was scorned by many, arguing that mental illness was due to bodily magnetism

16. Which research approach requires subjects to recall the past?

a. reconstructive b. repressed c. retroactive d. retrospective



Unit 1 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

17. Early treatment at the Public Hospital in Williamsburg, Virginia, involved the belief that:

a. Patients needed to choose rationality over insanity and treatments were designed to intimidate patients into choosing correctly. b. Patients were demonically possessed and needed to be made uncomfortable to get the demons to leave. c. Patients were medically ill and needed physiological treatments. d. Patients were basically animals and were treated as such.

18. A researcher says, “These studies make it too easy for investigators to find the background factors they expect to find. However, they are more valid if we find documents like school reports that show the background factor before the disorder emerges.” What kind of research strategy is the researcher referring to?

a. prospective strategies b. N=1 strategies c. retrospective strategies d. analogue studies

19. What is “mass madness”?

a. an exhibition of disordered behavior by a group of people that appears to be caused by hysteria b. a reaction to the harsh and inhumane treatment of the mentally ill during the Middle Ages c. a reference to the increased incidence of schizophrenia seen 16 years after a flu epidemic d. a reaction to hallucinogenic compounds taken as part of religious rituals in ancient Egypt

20. What would determine whether the WISC-IV or the WAIS-IV is used to test intelligence?

a. the suspected level of impairment b. the amount of time available for test administration c. the age of the client d. whether organic brain damage is present

21. Researchers have observed that women who wear bras for more than 16 hours a day are more likely to develop breast cancer than those who spend less time in a bra. In other words, there is a correlation between wearing a bra and breast cancer. Based on this finding, which of the following statements is true?

a. Wearing a bra causes cancer. b. All women should avoid wearing a bra for more than 16 hours a day. c. There is no relationship between wearing a bra and breast cancer; these data are clearly flawed. d. Some additional variable may serve to explain the relationship observed between wearing a bra and developing cancer.



Unit 1 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

22. According to the case study in the textbook, for Zell Kravinsky, the burden of _______ was almost unbearable.

a. hoarding personal possessions b. washing his hands compulsively c. refusing to help others d. writing and rewriting letters to his family

23. Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that:

a. People who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem. b. Low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression. c. People with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression. d. The psychological processes associated with low self-esteem will always trigger depression.

24. Who is considered to be the “father” of behaviorism?

a. Pavlov b. Freud c. Wundt d. Watson

25. Which method for studying genetic influences fails to control for the possible effect of sharing a common environment?

a. family history or pedigree method b. adoption method c. association studies d. linkage analysis



Unit 2 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of treating GAD with a benzodiazepine?

a. A therapeutic response is not seen for several weeks. b. There is a high risk of overdose. c. There is potential for physiological and psychological dependence. d. The somatic symptoms are not treated.

2. What disorder does GAD appear to be most related to?

a. PTSD b. panic disorder c. specific phobia d. major depression

3. B-cells are:

a. cells that engulf antigens b. cells that produce antibodies c. cells that harm the immune system d. cells that are antigens

4. Which of the following provides evidence against a role for inherited factors in the development of phobias?

a. the high concordance rate seen in fraternal twins b. the impact of nonshared environmental factors c. the preparedness hypothesis d. the early onset of many phobic reactions

5. What has research on the preparedness theory of phobias found?

a. Fear responses cannot be conditioned to fear-irrelevant stimuli. b. Acquired fear responses can be elicited with subliminal exposure to fear-relevant stimuli. c. Prepared fears are innate. d. There are cross-cultural differences in the stimuli people are “prepared” to fear.

6. A main symptom of PTSD in DSM-5 is:

a. development of stress-related diseases b. reexperiencing of the traumatic event c. panic attacks when remembering the trauma d. depression



Unit 2 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

7. Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder?

a. the occurrence of two or more episodes of major depression b. unremitting symptoms for a period of at least two years c. symptoms of psychosis d. the occurrence of at least one manic episode

8. Quentin is severely depressed and presents an immediate and serious suicidal risk. In the past he has not responded to tricyclics. A wise course of action is to treat him with:

a. Prozac because it can reduce symptoms in 12-24 hours b. electroconvulsive therapy because it can rapidly reduce symptoms c. lithium because suicide is almost always accompanied by manic episodes d. anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine and valproate because they can prevent future depressions

9. Stress-inoculation training:

a. involves learning new ways to think about an anticipated threat, including what a person says to themselves b. prepares one to deal with a stressor by considering solutions to the problems that are likely to arise c. is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of any life challenge d. can be used to prepare for almost any disaster

10. Research on hypochondriasis has shown that people with the disorder tend to:

a. ignore information about illness b. overestimate the dangerousness of diseases c. underestimate the dangerousness of diseases d. overestimate their ability to handle being ill

11. The inability to learn new information is known as:

a. anterograde amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. continuous amnesia d. generalized amnesia

12. Kerry suffers from depression. He is experiencing delusions that his brain is deteriorating and that he is aging quickly. These delusions:

a. clearly suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia b. are typical of depressive delusions because they are mood congruent c. suggest that he is suffering from a bipolar rather than a unipolar disorder d. are most likely to persist after the depression remits



Unit 2 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

13. The psychotropic medications used in the treatment of PTSD:

a. are used to alter the stressful situation b. act to minimize the cognitive response to the stressor c. provide the client with a temporary escape from the trauma d. treat the symptoms the client is experiencing

14. The majority of individuals who ATTEMPT suicide are ___________ and the majority of those who COMPLETE suicide are ___________.

a. women and people between age 18 and 24; men and people over age 65 b. men and people over age 65; women and people between age 18 and 24 c. adolescents; the elderly d. the elderly; adolescents

15. The treatment goal for most therapists who treat dissociative identity disorder is:

a. acceptance of the alter personalities b. reduction in the impact of distress and impairment c. integration of the alter personalities d. self-understanding of the causes for the alter personalities

16. Dagmar is a musician and she loves the fact that she constantly hears new melodies in her head. In fact, she cannot remember a time when she did not hear music. Why is this NOT an example of an obsession?

a. Obsessions must be accompanied by ritualistic actions. b. Obsessions must come on suddenly in response to a stressful life event. c. Obsessions must be voluntary thoughts that a person knows are irrational. d. Obsessions must be intrusive thoughts the person finds disturbing.

17. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

a. were the first antidepressants to be developed b. are more effective than the tricyclic antidepressants c. may lead to sexual problems d. act to stabilize the mood swings of those with bipolar disorder

18. Margaret has been suffering with dysthymia for several years and has sought treatment on several occasions. About one month ago she developed more severe symptoms of depression, which have been maintained almost daily. The condition she is experiencing is best described as:

a. double depression b. chronic melancholia c. adjustment disorder with bipolar features d. recurring melancholic depression



Unit 2 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

19. Social phobia:

a. is characterized by significant fear of most social situations b. and antisocial personality commonly are comorbid disorders c. involves a fear of one or more specific social situations d. typically develops in childhood

20. According to the revisions made for the DSM-5, most people previously diagnosed with __________ will be diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder.

a. hypochondriasis b. factitious disorder c. dissociative amnesia d. body dysmorphic disorder

21. Which of the following is characteristic of the obsessions seen in OCD?

a. The obsessions serve to alleviate the anxiety created by the compulsions. b. The obsessions are clearly related to a traumatic life event. c. The obsessions are rarely related to the compulsions exhibited. d. The obsessions involve persistent and recurrent intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that are experienced as disturbing, inappropriate, or uncontrollable.

22. According to your textbook, which of the following statements is true about the relationship between religion and rate of suicide?

a. Suicide rates in Catholic countries are high but are low in Islamic countries. b. Suicide rates in Catholic countries are low but are high in Islamic countries. c. Suicide rates in both Catholic and Islamic countries are low. d. Suicide rates in both Catholic and Islamic countries are high.

23. What do positive and negative stressors have in common?

a. They usually last indefinitely. b. Both occur without warning. c. They have an equivalent potential for causing lasting damage. d. Both tax one’s resources and coping skills.



Unit 2 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

24. Carleen comes to therapy because she is feeling sad. Carleen says her she has often had periods of extreme sadness in the past and they typically last between 6 and 8 months. During those times she overeats, has trouble sleeping, feels exhausted all the time, and thinks a lot about dying. At other times, however, Carleen says she feels wonderful. During those times, which last about a week, she gets a lot done, feels as if she could do anything, talks a lot and quickly, doesn’t sleep, but doesn’t feel tired. Carleen says her “up” times are great and have never caused her any trouble. Carleen’s most likely diagnosis is:

a. major depressive disorder b. dysthymia c. bipolar I d. bipolar II

25. Wendy went swimming in the ocean last week and became mildly fearful when she swallowed a lot of water and felt as though she would drown. Just yesterday someone told her that a shark was seen in the water at the same time she was swimming. Now she is petrified of going into the ocean. This best illustrates:

a. the observational learning explanation for phobias b. the inability of the phobic person to direct his or her attention away from a feared object c. the “inflation effect” d. classically conditioned generalization based on direct experience



Unit 3 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between sexual abuse and the development of eating disorders?

a. There appears to be a relationship, but it appears to be indirect, involving an array of intervening variables. b. There is no relationship between early sexual abuse and the development of eating disorders later in life. c. Early sexual abuse may lead to a denial of one’s sexuality and a desire to maintain a child- like appearance, resulting in attempts to prevent the development of a more mature figure through dieting. d. While sexual abuse has been found to increase the risk of developing anorexia, no relationship has been observed between abuse and other eating disorders.

2. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of histrionic personality disorder?

a. low openness to feelings and high fantasy proneness b. high extraversion and high neuroticism c. high neuroticism and low agreeableness d. high conscientiousness and low assertiveness

3. Elena binges on high calorie foods and then makes herself throw up. She feels terribly ashamed and horrified by what she does. You would predict she will:

a. stop making herself throw up because she is ashamed and distressed b. not stop because her vomiting is reinforced by reducing her fear of gaining weight c. stop because her vomiting is being punished by the feelings of disgust and shame d. not stop because she has become physiologically addicted to vomiting

4. Which of the following is a common component of cognitive behavioral treatments for antisocial personality?

a. punishment b. relaxation c. self-critical thinking d. response-prevention training

5. Which of the following countries has the highest per capita rate of alcohol consumption?

a. Argentina b. France c. Germany d. United States



Unit 3 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

6. An involuntary reoccurrence of perceptual distortions can occur weeks or months after taking a particular drug. The phenomenon is called ________; the drug is called ________.

a. amphetamine psychosis; amphetamine b. a flashback; LSD c. a rush; LSD d. a blackout; alcohol

7. Angela is 10 and has been a victim of sexual abuse. The short-term effects:

a. will include dissociative symptoms b. will almost certainly produce severe changes in thought, feeling, and behavior c. generally involve a compensatory sense of control d. may include fears and sexual inappropriateness, but there is no single response syndrome

8. Andrea has anorexia nervosa, restricting type. Which of the following behaviors would you expect her to have?

a. self-induced vomiting b. cutting up her food into little pieces when she eats c. normal menstrual periods d. occasional bouts of overeating

9. It was once believed that masturbation caused:

a. infertility b. insanity c. Narcissism d. Schizophrenia

10. Which of the following disorders is associated with engaging in autoerotic asphyxia?

a. transvestic fetishism b. scatologia c. frotteurism d. masochism

11. Which type of treatment for alcoholism has been found to be most effective?

a. inpatient treatment b. outpatient treatment c. twelve-step programs d. all were about equal



Unit 3 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

12. When it comes to cross-cultural similarities and differences concerning sexual behavior, which of the following statements is accurate?

a. Taboos on sex between close relatives are found in all known cultures. b. Only in Western societies do men place greater emphasis on a partner’s attractiveness. c. In a specific culture, sexual attitudes and practices tend to be quite stable over hundreds of years. d. In most cultures, people are highly tolerant of sexual nonconformity.

13. Which statement about the diagnosis of eating disorders is accurate?

a. A person meeting the criteria for bulimia rarely, if ever, has been diagnosed with anorexia. b. There is quite a lot of diagnostic crossover in eating disorders. c. Although the symptoms of anorexia and bulimia do not overlap, women with eating disorders often have other diagnosable psychiatric conditions. d. Although anorexia and bulimia are quite similar, women with eating disorders rarely have a comorbid psychological condition.

14. Which of the following do those with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have in common?

a. fear of being or becoming fat b. a sense of control c. below normal weight d. restricted eating

15. Hope believes that she is the “star” of her graduate class and that the other students dislike her because they are jealous of her superior intelligence. She believes that she is entitled to be exempted from an important exam because of her outstanding performance in class. Hope probably suffers from:

a. histrionic personality disorder b. narcissistic personality disorder c. dependent personality disorder d. schizoid personality disorder

16. Why is it that people with narcissistic personality disorder are unlikely to seek treatment?

a. They are suspicious that therapists will steal their ideas. b. They afraid they will become dependent on the therapist. c. They are hypersensitive to criticism. d. They think they are nearly perfect and in no need of change.



Unit 3 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

17. The beliefs about homosexuality among the Sambia tribe illustrate that:

a. such behavior is considered abnormal in all cultures b. cultures in developing nations are more accepting of sexual nonconformists than other cultures c. classification of sexual practices as abnormal is strongly influenced by culture d. there really is no such thing as abnormal sexual behavior

18. The main reason addicts gave for using heroin was:

a. pleasure b. pain reduction c. depression d. mental illness

19. Unlike the person with paranoid schizophrenia, the person with paranoid personality disorder:

a. becomes delusional in response to an actual betrayal or hurtful incident with another person b. has persistent loss of reality contact c. tends to confide in others and assume the loyalty of his or her friends d. is in contact with reality, although he or she may have transient psychotic symptoms

20. In research studies, in addition to failing to learn to avoid punishment, psychopaths:

a. did not cognitively understand the connection between a behavior and its consequence b. felt a great deal of anticipatory anxiety about punishment, leading to impulsive behaviors c. did not show normal fear potential startle responses d. showed larger than normal fear potential startle responses

21. Concern about childhood sexual abuse has increased in the past decade due to:

a. evidence that it is increasing in frequency b. changes in laws requiring that any suspicion of abuse must be reported to the authorities c. the recognition that such abuse may lead to other problems later in life d. improved techniques for determining the accuracy of recovered memories

22. One of the reasons the Kinsey report is noteworthy is that it:

a. revealed that homosexuality was much more common than expected b. established that homosexuals were psychologically normal c. redefined sexuality d. lead to the immediate removal of homosexuality from the DSM



Unit 3 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

23. The only treatment that has been shown to be effective in treating gender dysphoria is:

a. long-term psychodynamic therapy b. aversion therapy c. surgical sex reassignment d. medication to alter hormone production

24. Which of the following is both a stimulant and a hallucinogen?

a. amphetamine b. cocaine c. ecstasy d. mescaline

25. How do you distinguish between the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, purging type?

a. The bulimic type involves throwing up, and the anorexic type involves fasting. b. Altered eating and exercise habits result in missed periods in the bulimic type only. c. The bulimic type results in more severe health consequences than the anorexic type. d. People with the bulimic type are normal weight, people with the anorexic type are underweight.



Unit 4 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. In genetic studies, a “proband” or “index case” is someone who:

a. is related to someone with the disorder of interest b. shows signs of the disorder of interest c. shares at least 25 percent of his or her genes with an affected subject d. has the disorder of interest

2. The term “demence precoce” was used by Benedict Morel to describe schizophrenia and to also explain the:

a. lack of brain damage that characterizes the brain of most schizophrenics b. effectiveness of psychological treatments for schizophrenia c. transient nature of most schizophrenias d. difference between schizophrenia and dementias of old age

3. A randomized clinical trial:

a. is a study where all subjects are treated the same to see what percentage of the total gets better, stays the same, or gets worse b. is a study where people are assigned to different types of treatment by the flip of a coin to see which treatment is best c. is a study where people go through different treatments in random order to see which one works best d. is a study where people are assigned to different groups by a flip of a coin, one-half to a treatment group and one-half to a seemingly identical placebo group

4. The fact that a significant number of monozygotic twins share the same placenta, while no dizygotic twins do, suggests that:

a. we may have overestimated the influence of genetics in schizophrenia b. being a monozygotic twin is a risk factor for schizophrenia c. genetic influences are even more important than previously thought d. monozygotic twins have a form of genetic schizophrenia while dizygotic twins have an environmentally caused form

5. The advantage of using outside independent observers or pre/post test comparisons to evaluate a client’s progress is that:

a. They take less time and are less costly. b. They increase the objectivity of ratings over those given by the people involved in treatment. c. They ensure that there is no “regression to the mean” phenomenon. d. They provide a valid prediction of how the client will behave in real life.



Unit 4 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

6. Focal brain damage is most likely to be a consequence of:

a. stroke b. oxygen deprivation c. poison ingestion d. malnutrition

7. The extent of the deficits seen after brain damage are determined in part by:

a. genetic factors b. how one is functioning before the damage occurs c. chemical imbalances in the brain d. the drugs a person was on

8. Mild to moderate diffuse brain damage is most likely to result in:

a. mood disturbance b. attention deficits c. visual distortions d. altered sleep patterns

9. Why might Kraepelin’s idea that schizophrenia was similar to dementia not be as far from the truth as previously thought?

a. Evidence suggests that there sometimes are progressive changes in brain volume over time in people with schizophrenia. b. The symptoms of the two disorders overlap tremendously. c. On autopsy, people with schizophrenia show the same smoothing of the brain as is seen in people with dementia. d. The same biological treatments work for both disorders.

10. What recent changes have altered the types of therapy that are available?

a. There is an increased need to prove that therapy is effective. b. Psychiatrists are hesitant to write prescriptions for many drugs. c. The increased use of nurses as therapy providers has increased the use of drugs in many community health settings. d. Many popular therapies have been found to do more harm than good.



Unit 4 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

11. As a camp counselor, you are surprised when you hear that one of your young campers takes a hormone replacement drug intranasally to treat a psychological disorder. The disorder is most likely:

a. enuresis b. autism c. somnambulism d. encopresis

12. Evidence that culture plays a role in the development of childhood anxiety disorders comes from the fact that:

a. African American children rarely show symptoms of PTSD. b. Children from cultures that favor inhibition and compliance report more fears. c. Children from cultures that favor independence report more fears. d. Overanxious children rarely have overanxious parents.

13. An example of an atypical antipsychotic not considered as a first choice treatment is:

a. Haldol b. Clozapine c. Risperidone d. Zyprexa

14. Which of the following is not listed in the DSM-5 under elimination disorders?

a. primary functional enuresis b. encopresis c. secondary functional enuresis d. sleepwalking disorder

15. Childhood depression is likely to persist because:

a. lasting changes occur in the brain b. positive events are unlikely to occur c. most treatments are not effective d. an attributional style is adopted that maintains a negative mood state



Unit 4 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

16. Shortly after birth, Darren’s head began to grow. At age 5, a shunt was placed in his skull to drain fluid. He has seizures, trouble seeing, and is mildly mentally retarded. Darren’s most likely diagnosis is:

a. microcephaly b. phenylketonuria c. Turner’s syndrome d. hydrocephaly

17. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s disease?

a. being a woman b. having a family history of Parkinson’s disease c. living in a non-Western developed nation d. being highly educated

18. Children with ADHD that have symptoms of hyperactivity are usually:

a. well liked by their peers because they are always active b. well liked by their peers because they become “class clowns” c. viewed negatively by their peers because of their behaviors d. viewed negatively by their peers because they are socially withdrawn

19. The basic assumption of cognitive-behavior therapy is:

a. problems develop because people view themselves and their world in biased ways b. abnormal behavior is learned like normal behavior and can be unlearned c. people have the freedom and responsibility to control their own lives d. only observable behaviors can really be changed

20. A learning disability usually is identified because:

a. teachers and school administrators are on the watch for the signs b. a child shows a disparity between his or her actual academic achievement and expected academic achievement c. a child begins to show significant emotional problems, fails, and begins to hate school d. the child has been doing very well in school for several years and then suddenly starts failing

21. The Danish adoption studies have been criticized for:

a. not treating the subjects found to have schizophrenia b. not independently assessing the child-rearing environments of the index and control groups c. only studying males d. not confirming the family history of the subjects



Unit 4 Examination


PSY 408 Abnormal Psychology

22. William is an autistic child. He is probably:

a. very talkative b. unable to utter any meaningful sounding words c. relatively withdrawn and uncommunicative d. aggressive and frequently attacks others

23. Studies of monochorionic and dichorionic twins:

a. offer further evidence of the role of the prenatal environment in schizophrenia b. suggest that schizophrenia is more heritable than previously thought c. indicate that the risk of developing schizophrenia is not altered by the prenatal environment d. establish that genetic relatedness to an affected individual has nothing to do with one’s risk of developing schizophrenia

24. Which of the following has been associated with autism?

a. Down syndrome b. mutations of chromosome 23 c. defective genes or radiation damage d. Huntington’s disease

25. Punitive approaches to antisocial youth are:

a. likely to make problems worse b. effective when intervention occurs before adolescence c. not the norm d. effective at “teaching the child a lesson”

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